this post was submitted on 03 Jun 2024
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United States | News & Politics

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[–] DragonTypeWyvern@midwest.social 15 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Shouldn't the one person who absolutely should be on the jury be the person reporting a bribery attempt?

[–] KickMeElmo@sopuli.xyz 12 points 5 months ago (2 children)

No, because they're automatically biased against the defendant. The goal is no bias, regardless of reason.

[–] protist@mander.xyz 3 points 5 months ago (2 children)

Declining a bribe makes you automatically biased? Huh?

[–] Monument@lemmy.sdf.org 2 points 5 months ago

Yes.
Even if I believed someone were innocent, if someone attempted to purchase my vote, I would be personally offended, and immediately view the defendant as untrustworthy. It would bias my judgement.

The article states that the judge removed the jury member from the case and swapped in an alternate. The judge is also sequestering the jury, so they must spend the remainder of the case in a hotel - hopefully avoiding any other attempts to bias the jury.

[–] PlantDadManGuy@lemmy.world 0 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Elmo has no idea how juror selection works.

[–] Monument@lemmy.sdf.org 2 points 5 months ago

Your comment requires elaboration.

What happened here was jury tampering, and it occurred after jury selection.

How would jury selection factor in?

[–] Buddahriffic@lemmy.world 2 points 5 months ago

Personally, I think the bias caused by attempting to bribe a member of the jury would be entirely fair. It should be used as further evidence of guilt in the trial itself. Even if they are innocent of the original charges, they are corrupt and I can't say I have any problem with removing power from such corruption.