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How do you figure? I was there and remember the primary very well. Bernie was in no way excluded from participating. How is that statement not in good faith? Because I merely disagree with your conspiracy laden conclusions about the role and behavior of a particular political party?
Like it or not, political parties are associations of private individuals. Bernie didn't have to seek their nomination but he did. The DNC definitely had a preference, but in terms of historical black-dog primary candidates, 2016 was hardly unfair. Bernie knew that he had to beat an imposing superdelegate disadvantage. This was not hidden from him. And even then it didn't matter because he lost by 8 million votes. Call me old fashioned, but removing the agency of 8M people because you don't like the way they voted doesn't strike me as "good faith."
But the thing which really gets me is that after 2016, the DNC took the feedback to heart and made a bunch of sweeping changes to the nominating process intended to boost transparency, reduce the possibility of corruption by individuals (eg, DWS), and double the delegate allocation for voters. They did all the stuff "good faith" votergroups wanted, yet somehow, none of the "good faith" conversations about the DNC want to talk about that.
To this statement,
You replied with...
Your response was clearly a straw man. But maybe you just misunderstood and you were restating what you understood to be their point. But then...
got the response...
Now we have a pattern. Low effort straw man arguments are done in bad faith, unless you want to plead to just being an imbecile.
BTW: They weren't my "conspiracy laden conclusions". That is (I assume) a mistaken attribution, and it is also a mischaracterization of what was said. I just came into the conversation to call you out for your bad faith arguments.