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Russell Brand allegations question from non American (www.theguardian.com)

submitted 1 year ago by El_Dorado@beehaw.org to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn't help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.

Don't get me wrong I don't know much about the guy and what he did or didn't do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.

But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I'd be happy if someone could explain me.

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[–] GARlactic@lemm.ee 5 points 1 year ago

Google is a private company that can choose who to do business with. By signing up to use the platform, you have to agree to their terms of service which state that they can decide to stop doing business with you at any time for any reason they deem. In this case, they chose to stop doing business with him by demonetizing his videos due to the allegations against him. He's free to sue them, but that's a battle that will be hard fought and could take years.