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It normalizes the concept. Which is what Israel wants. They want 'antisemitism' and 'Israel criticism' associated with it.
But more importantly, I have literally seen that sort of sarcastic comment about things that are actually bigoted now because people think that all they have to do is say, "I guess X is antisemitism now..." and suddenly it shifts to how Israel is co-opting the term- by co-opting the term.
Does that make sense? It's an "any publicity is good publicity" situation.
Why do you require your own special word that's exclusive to one particular religion? Why not just use bigot like every other situation?
Literally one post before this I said:
Right, you gave up. Implying that you did hold the opinion that there should be a special word for anti-jewish, and likely still do hold that position, but the meaning of the word has changed from your desired definition. I'm asking why you did, and maybe still do, believe anti-jewish should have its own unique word in the first place.
ETA: I'm asking legitimately. I've never understood why anti-jewish hate is so much more special than anti-muslim, anti-black, or any other sort of bigotry. I understand the persecution of Jews throughout history, but I also understand the persecution of Muslims, black people, etc. throughout history.
It's not "more special", it's different. Context matters, and there are centuries of context. Anti Muslim slurs point to different stereotypes and belittle people in different ways than anti Jewish slurs. Why not have different words for the sake of accuracy? Most other categories of things have this linguistic construction, so why not bigotry?
I don't really give a shit whether or not there is a unique word, but since there is a unique word, why let Israel get to define it and why let bigots get to agree with them?
If you don't like the word, the solution is to stop using it and get others to also stop using it, not to use it sarcastically or ironically.
Pretty sure most people I know would see an obvious sarcastic like this as actively de-legitimising Israel's attempt to broaden the term. Maybe that's because I generally hang out with people who are fairly well educated, but I think most people are smart enough to understand the intention here. Do you have any evidence/logic to back your claim that it legitimises?
Of course, sarcasm is difficult to convey with text, so there's a risk that people will read it as intended unironically.. But I don't think that's happened here.
Do I have evidence other than my seeing it here on Lemmy and having it said to my face? No. And I'm not really going to take the time to search through god knows how many Lemmy comments to prove it to you if you don't want to believe me.