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I'm sorry... Am I reading this correctly?
Did you just say the ESV was a bad translation and just cite the... NIV?????
Either you are really stupid or you HAVE to be a troll. If it's the former, the NIV is notoriously a bad translation, with it's main aim being to simplify the text with the translator's own interpretation. The benefit is that it's easier to read, but that's it. The NIV is the only translation which uses the term miscarry. Even the NRSV, a secular translation, says
"thigh" is a euphemism for womb. That's well known. So "womb" is a valid translation even though literally it says "thigh". But it's still clearly talking about a non pregnant woman becoming infertile. And the fact that the only thing you can use to justify your point is the NIV translation of it which shows you have no point at all
Still nothing here implying the miscarriage, and this is the Westminster Leningrad Codex. Is the Hebrew a bad translation, too? 🤣
For your last "rebuttal", you forgot again that Jesus is God - He sacrificed Himself for all of humanity. Abraham was following God and didn't sacrifice his son. The point was his loyalty- not the child sacrifice. Nothing's virtuous about it.
Why are they talking about a woman's womb at all unless they think she is pregnant? What does the womb "discharge?" Where does it say she is NOT pregnant? Why is pregnancy NOT a concern if she was laying with another man as the passage discusses?
I think this translation is valid. That you have to explain that "thigh falling," means "womb discharge," shows that your translation is a bad one. And a womb discharge is clearly another way of saying miscarriage.
Women have wombs when they're not pregnant? Ever heard of a period? Heavy periods? People would have been seen unclean in that society as well if they had constant periods and would have been infertile.
A period being induced when a woman is pregnant is another name for a miscarriage. Thank you for proving my point. If they are inducing a period with the bitter water, that's to cause a miscarriage.
The passage isn't about periods. There are indeed biblical passages about menstruation, but this isn't one. This passage is about a woman sleeping with a man who isn't their partner. So again, what are they making the womb "discharge" after this suspected infidelity?
But the passage doesn't say she's pregnant. You don't always get pregnant after the first time you sleep with someone 🤦
Interlinear verse, if that helps
https://scholarsgateway.com/parse/%D7%A0%D6%B9%D7%A4%D6%B6%D7%9C%D6%B6%D7%AA
No mention of miscarriage.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heavy_menstrual_bleeding
A medical condition which matches this, also appears in Mark 5:25–34