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this post was submitted on 14 Nov 2023
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Nice shoehorn of anglo-saxon history, but those famines are all plagues and crop faliures for the most part.
Why is it the rich never starve if it's just a totally unaccountable natural disaster?
Rich usually have more resources and ability to purchase them at elevated prices. Hope that helps
Because they have money duuh.
So it's less of a natural disaster and more of an economic disaster? I wonder why people would blame governments for that...
It is like miles away from the intentional economical engineering we are talking about. Still not sure why you are so bent on trying to wiggle them into a comparsion between regimes and personnel more direct, intentional and immediate like Mao or Stalin.
If you dont distinguish from those, then why even have a debate on them?
The joke implied that the question intended to ask one or very few directly involved personnel and you disregarded that. Thats it.
Right sure, when the British intentionally abuse Ireland and India it's really just a whoopsie-daisy.
Should I really do the same kind of jumping to conclusions?
Are you saying that the largest completely man made famine ever does not really deserve that much of a recognition?
Nope. I'm just saying they're all "man-made".
The rich and the party cadres
They forced farmers to grow indigo crops instead of natural cotton/wheat/rice.
Im pretty sure that was not during the drought itself, nor really caused it. It economically made sense and then probably exacerbated the famine.
It wasn't just the drought. Indigo cropping destroyed the soil first, drought exacerbated the problems.
All famines are crop failures. That's kinda how famines happen.
No
I suppose you can consider getting your crops blown up a crop failure