this post was submitted on 11 Nov 2023
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[–] theamigan@lemmy.dynatron.me 2 points 10 months ago (1 children)

The literature about this subject is all over the place. I definitely see no consensus that there have only been two. Maybe two that are very good examples, but the general theme is that whenever he speaks of faith or morals he is infallible. Oh well, you could spend a lifetime trying to logic the illogical.

[–] PeleSpirit@lemmy.world 5 points 10 months ago

I think you're misinterpreting what they're saying, especially when they have latin describing something. It's like their laws. I was always taught in catholic school that he was only infallible when he spoke very specifically as infallible.