this post was submitted on 28 Oct 2023
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[–] klubsanwich@alien.top 1 points 1 year ago (2 children)

Maybe a dumb question, but what’s the margin of error for VAR?

[–] theeama@alien.top 1 points 1 year ago (2 children)

For offside none. It’s either off or on. Wenger is trying to change it though so the attackers body have to be completely ahead of the defender to be counted as offside

[–] GeshtiannaSG@alien.top 1 points 1 year ago

“Clearly” as he means it is subjective and adds more bias and uncertainty. It’s much better to be like this where it’s a simple >0.

[–] Novrev@alien.top 1 points 1 year ago

They’re not asking if VAR allows the attacker any leeway in offside calls. They’re asking about the accuracy/precision of the technology in generating these images, the answer to which is that the margin of error hasn’t been publicly disclosed.

[–] qh2150@alien.top 1 points 1 year ago

Presumably though the error is statistically unbiased. Meaning if it could have been less offsides it could equally have been more offsides so in either case the result should stand unless you think it’s biased and within margin of error.