this post was submitted on 19 Oct 2023
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[–] nicknoxx@feddit.uk 56 points 1 year ago (1 children)

As an English person I thought yay that means us. Then I remembered. . .

[–] TWeaK@lemm.ee 4 points 1 year ago (1 children)

The EU ruling was in 2016, well before Brexit happened in 2019, so we should have the same law.

[–] Viking_Hippie@lemmy.world 8 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Except that EU court rulings don't count in countries that stupidly left, no matter when they happened.

You could pass a similar law yourself, but that's probably not going to happen with either the abysmal Tories or the feckless centrist party Keir "I want to be Tony Blair" Starmer has turned Labour into in charge 😮‍💨

[–] TWeaK@lemm.ee 4 points 1 year ago (2 children)

Nearly all EU rulings up until the UK left in 2019 are a part of British law. If the ruling was before the Brexit referendum then it would definitely count. Specifically with GDPR, the government confirmed that they adopted the EU's law.

Furthermore, this isn't a court ruling, it was a written reply from the European Commission, ie the people that wrote the law.

[–] Viking_Hippie@lemmy.world 3 points 1 year ago

I guess I sit corrected and pleasantly surprised then 🙂

[–] BlueMagma@sh.itjust.works 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

It's nothing to do with GDPR acording to the link of the post (people should read more than headlines..)

[–] TWeaK@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago

You're right, it's the ePrivacy Directive, which predates GDPR by many years (2002).