this post was submitted on 14 Jun 2025
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Not "literally". Ireland is trying to expand the definition in the ICJ to make it so though.
Ireland will not be asserting if genocide is being committed, but asserting its interpretation of the Genocide Convention.
https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/ce48wpd08pgo
I don't abide by ICJ rulings, I abide by credible reporting and evidence. Compare the civilian deaths ratio in the Ukraine invasion (however bad they may be) to the one in Palestine
Yes a higher civilian death ratio in Gaza but the Ukraine military are not in civilian areas.
Admittedly Russia actually targets civilians but it is with long range missiles and drones, most of which get intercepted.
That article says Ireland is also trying to expand the definition of genocide to include Ukrainian deaths. I don't know why it does not fit the definition currently; perhaps because Russia are not trying to wipe out the Ukrainian population? I dunno. Get back to us if you find out.
Am just pointing out the legal definition of the word regardless of whether courts are just
Yeah but according to the current legal definition, looking at the evidence, I can confidently claim it's a genocide
No, not according to the current definition. That is why Ireland is trying to change it. Words change all the time so it is possible.
That would equate Gaza and Ukraine with the Holocaust, Rwanda, Cambodia, the nature and magnitude of which were very different. Perhaps they could create a new word for those?
Huh? Gaza and Ukraine are completely different conflicts. Ukraine is a military invasion, Gaza is a genocide.
Can you post the current definition? I'm happy to argue about that, because i do maintain that it's a genocide in the case of Gaza because there's a manifest intent to eliminate an entire people, unlike the case of Ukraine.