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submitted 2 weeks ago by robinoberg@feddit.uk to c/economics@lemmy.ml

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[–] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 3 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (1 children)

Capitalism arose well after money, it's a specific mode of production.

[–] BlueFootedBooby@lemm.ee 0 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Yeah, because the previous prelevant system, feudalism, was so fair and not at all exploitative of the poor by the rich

[–] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 2 points 2 weeks ago

Feudalism was also exploitative, but in a different manner and character as the class character was different. I don't see what your point is, here.