this post was submitted on 03 Jul 2024
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[โ€“] Diabolo96@lemmy.dbzer0.com 13 points 4 months ago (3 children)

I thought US laws only used Latin for it's brain shattering legalese terms. I make a fool of myself yet again ๐Ÿฅฒ

Thanks for the info.

[โ€“] FlyingSquid@lemmy.world 11 points 4 months ago (2 children)

I don't know if that's always true, but this is not an exception to that.

"right to hold property of another until debt is paid," 1530s, from French lien "a band or tie" (12c.), from Latin ligamen "bond," from ligare "to bind, tie" (from PIE root *leig- "to tie, bind"). The word was in Middle English in the literal sense "a bond, fetter," also figuratively, "moral restraint." also from 1530s

https://www.etymonline.com/word/lien

[โ€“] harrys_balzac@lemmy.dbzer0.com 3 points 4 months ago (1 children)
[โ€“] tostiman@sh.itjust.works 4 points 4 months ago

Lingua my balls!